b. 49

 

 

From the pianistic point of view, the 1st finger on c1 seems absolutely obvious, so it is hard to imagine that Chopin had any need to correct fingering for that note in the teaching copy. Were the sign to be the digit '1' after all, then the most probable explanation would be the following hypothetical situation: Chopin wanted to mark the fingering 1-1 for the notes c sharp1-c1 in bars 48-49 but mistakenly wrote the numeral only for the second one of those two notes. 

category imprint: Differences between sources

issues: Annotations in teaching copies, Annotations in FES

notation: Fingering

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